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Turd Fergusen

Veteran Member
DEI again....

2022-new-york-state-legislatures-17146594.jpg

Asian parents filed a federal discrimination suit against the New York State Education Department Wednesday — claiming their kids are being unfairly kept out of a STEM summer program in favor of black and Hispanic students.

The state-funded Science and Technology Entry Program (STEP) admits around 11,000 7th-to-12th-grade students a year for classes at 56 participating colleges and medical schools statewide.

The pre-college enrichment program aims to “increase the number of historically underrepresented and economically disadvantaged students prepared to enter college and improve their participation rate” in math, science, tech and health fields, according to its website.

But while black, Hispanic and Native American students can apply regardless of family wealth — Asian and white schoolkids need to meet certain low-income criteria, the lawsuit filed in upstate New York federal court claims.

“In other words, the Hispanic child of a multi-millionaire is eligible to apply to STEP, while an Asian American child whose family earns just above the state’s low- income threshold is not, solely because of her race or ethnicity,” the filing states.

The allegedly biased admissions criteria have been in place for nearly four decades, the suit claims, adding: “Thirty-nine years of discrimination is enough.”

Plaintiffs include New York City-based Yiatin Chu of the Asian Wave Alliance, who said she was stunned when she first heard of STEP’s policy a few weeks ago and decided to join the suit, which also names Education Commissioner Betty Rosa as a defendant.

“This is outright discrimination against Asian-American students pursuing the STEM [Science, Technology, Engineering and Math education] field,” said Chiu, an advocate for merit-based admissions at the city’s specialized high schools.

“The program should be for all students or for low income students. The state is choosing which race is eligible,” she told The Post.

Full Article:
 
increase the number of historically underrepresented and economically disadvantaged students prepared to enter college and improve their participation rate”

Historically.

"But while black, Hispanic and Native American students can apply regardless of family wealth — Asian and white schoolkids need to meet certain low-income criteria, the lawsuit filed in upstate New York federal court claims."

Claims. It's either in the written guidelines or it's not. (I know it's a legal term, but the writer has used it in a way to introduce doubt as to it's legitimacy. Reporters should read the guidelines and application forms at the very least.)


" In other words, the Hispanic child of a multi-millionaire is eligible to apply to STEP, while an Asian American child whose family earns just above the state’s low- income threshold is not, solely because of her race or ethnicity,” the filing states."

Hispanic : They probably shouldn't have used Hispanic in their hypothetical example. There's not a lot of examples of wealth like that for Hispanics in New York City but even if there is it's first and second generation and that does not mean that there's a culture of Education in in the household.


What I DO see wrong is the categorizing and grouping of "Asians".
You can't put a fine point on every damn things, but "Asians"?

There's a gigantic difference- historically, culturally, economically, and educational emphasis- between Filipinos, Indonesians, Vietnamese and Japanese, South Korean, Chinese (and mainland VS off-shore)
I know that's not what they're saying, but that's just wrong to consider them homogenous in excluding them.

The program should be for all students or for low income students. The state is choosing which race is eligible,” (Chiu) she told The Post.

Those are the guidelines. They're intended to create and put a population that University admissions and industry recruiters and H. R. Departments are unconsciously accustomed to overlooking.
Asians suffer under no such presumptions that they're no good at STEM subjects, so they ALREADY have a leg up on visibility and acceptance when decision-makers see them.

This isn't about educating, this is about developing potential.

Just like the white flour baking contest, Bedens introduction of "The first Black, female..." Chiu and her group entirely miss the easily graspable point

It's not this hard. I don't understand why people want it to be.


As far as white students, they're not mentioning them as getting something at their expense, only fellow minorities.

That all, is a whole different subject too consider.
 
increase the number of historically underrepresented and economically disadvantaged students prepared to enter college and improve their participation rate”

Historically.

"But while black, Hispanic and Native American students can apply regardless of family wealth — Asian and white schoolkids need to meet certain low-income criteria, the lawsuit filed in upstate New York federal court claims."

Claims. It's either in the written guidelines or it's not. (I know it's a legal term, but the writer has used it in a way to introduce doubt as to it's legitimacy. Reporters should read the guidelines and application forms at the very least.)


" In other words, the Hispanic child of a multi-millionaire is eligible to apply to STEP, while an Asian American child whose family earns just above the state’s low- income threshold is not, solely because of her race or ethnicity,” the filing states."

Hispanic : They probably shouldn't have used Hispanic in their hypothetical example. There's not a lot of examples of wealth like that for Hispanics in New York City but even if there is it's first and second generation and that does not mean that there's a culture of Education in in the household.


What I DO see wrong is the categorizing and grouping of "Asians".
You can't put a fine point on every damn things, but "Asians"?

There's a gigantic difference- historically, culturally, economically, and educational emphasis- between Filipinos, Indonesians, Vietnamese and Japanese, South Korean, Chinese (and mainland VS off-shore)
I know that's not what they're saying, but that's just wrong to consider them homogenous in excluding them.

The program should be for all students or for low income students. The state is choosing which race is eligible,” (Chiu) she told The Post.

Those are the guidelines. They're intended to create and put a population that University admissions and industry recruiters and H. R. Departments are unconsciously accustomed to overlooking.
Asians suffer under no such presumptions that they're no good at STEM subjects, so they ALREADY have a leg up on visibility and acceptance when decision-makers see them.

This isn't about educating, this is about developing potential.

Just like the white flour baking contest, Bedens introduction of "The first Black, female..." Chiu and her group entirely miss the easily graspable point

It's not this hard. I don't understand why people want it to be.


As far as white students, they're not mentioning them as getting something at their expense, only fellow minorities.

That all, is a whole different subject too consider.
I wasn't aware that the federal Civil Rights Act permitted discrimination on the basis of race, so long as it discriminated in favor of "historically disadvantaged" races.

It's been something of an article of faith for a generation of liberals that the failure of any subpopulation to match the racial, gender, ethnic, and religious makeup of the underlying population was per se evidence of discrimination. By extension, overt, codified discrimination was considered a form of non-discrimination if it was aimed at correcting such a discrepancy. But the Civil Rights Act has nothing in its text that supports that kind of "corrective" discrimination, it simply forbids discrimination.
 
When people bitch about something not being fair, they discontinue the program. That solves the problem. Someone will claim schools discriminate against the stupid people cause the intelligent get smarter while the stupid don't. I'm waiting for that lawsuit.

 
I wasn't aware that the federal Civil Rights Act permitted discrimination on the basis of race, so long as it discriminated in favor of "historically disadvantaged" races.

The Civil Rights Act of 1964 wouldn't be my first choice of document to use to support this, I would choose the Equal Educational Opportunities Act of 1974, but we'll go your way.

The CRA of 1964 addresses things in broad strokes, but is limited by states rights, therefore it can only enforce compliance with on institutions receiving "Federal Funding".
Right now, all states accept Federal funding for public schools. "
(Though TN wanted to opt out, don't know if they did)
New York gets around 5% of their public school funding from the feds.

But here's what we/I don't know and why I need to read more.

1. Where is the recruiting taking place?
2. Are the higher institutions where the children are going for this opportunity receiving any federal funding?

It's a program that's been in action for 40 years and that this is the first time someone has noticed it violates a significant portion of the CRA? Unlikely.

How can this be an issue if Affirmative Action was not so? That was an executive order, yes, but does an EO supercede a legislative act? If it's not challenged it can.


The Civil Rights Act, important as it is, as symbolic as it is, is porous as fuck.

That's why I believe referring to the Equal Educational Opportunities Act would serve us better as a basis for this conversation.

The court case will hinge on where those children are recruited from, how are they nominated.
It sounds like, at first blush, info is sent home to parents perhaps giving it the beginning of the school year outside of the school year outside of the school building I don't know and then they submitted independently directly to the program.

Is that still use of a federally funded entity? That is what the judges are going to be deciding, this is not going to be a reinterpretation of the Civil Rights Act. It's going to balance solely on where the line is drawn as to where one is under the auspices of that funding.

As you probably well know this could get as detailed as to whether postage and mail service are federally funded.
Then that will go into detail about postal employees receiving Federal benefits but not being Federal employees.

This is not going to be a question answered by pointing out a passage in the Civil Rights Act.

My assumption is that this program has been able to continue to operate because it is not federally funded and therefore the state can have whatever rules that it chooses for this particular program.
And if historical economic disadvantage is the criteria, I think that's reasonable.

This is a legal question that involves federal and state law and requires examination of funding etc etc it's not something that can be answered here I don't think.
But we can get as close as we wish, then continue on as information is introduced in the court case .

Also my feeling is that we are not getting a clear picture about precisely what the rules are for the program, and also what is within the program and who's teaching it and how are they paid.

There are a thousand questions @DaveL that we can't possibly answer without more information

@DaveL, remind me to just post things like "Hmmm" or "Ms. Chiu has a nice haircut" or the perennial favorite I'll get lots of cookies for, the noncommittal "DEI again..."

Okay let me see what you have for me next..



It's been something of an article of faith for a generation of liberals
Ah, then we're in luck

that the failure of any subpopulation to match the racial, gender, ethnic, and religious makeup of the underlying population was per se evidence of discrimination.
Per se wouldn't have so many non-static options @DaveL, would it?
In 4 words you have presented us with (you left out color and national origin , but that's OK, we're not assembling bombs here)
*rough, impossible math, only counting 2 genders, 3 races, *
That's 11 million variables to analyze and make specific guidelines of.

But I know what you're saying. And what you say is contracdory or at worst, not very nice.

The cause of any of those variables failing to thrive, as a population ( I want to make sure that we're in agreement that we are not referring to the individual, only a population group. Well have to figure out what we agree on that we can count as representative of a population. I'd say 70 to 80%? An adequate sampling to take a measurement of?)

Your contention is that when the measurements of a populations "success" is significantly than another groups, we cannot blame it on the fact that Consuela gets called back for an interview 50% less often thatn Judy, an objectively testable premise, or Black drivers get pulled over on their way to work 15% more than white drivers, and this is accounting for proportion of local population, and they are searched three times more often than their white counterparts and they are found to be carrying Contraband or weapons 2.5 times less of the time than their white counterparts, but after the sun goes down that rate completely evens out as far as who is pulled over, we cannot blame it on discrimination, the fault lies elsewhere?

What do you propose accounts for discrepancies?

And this is where I hope you use caution because I already know what has been traditionally given as a reason and they generally include things like intrinsically lower intellect, propensity towards criminality, low moral standards.

So what do you feel, if we took those 3 things and discrimination off the table, what would be the cause?

If you said regional allergies or something else, anything else, as a cause of the effect of lower success rates, I will definitely listen.


article of faith

I believe you are incorrect about who holds what as an Article of Faith.
You say liberals hold it as an article of faith that it is discrimination?
Then it can equally be said with the same amount of conviction that conservatives hold it as an article of faith that it is not.

That conservatives feel that if they don't see, they don't believe it exists.

If liberals say that they see it, conservatives don't believe it is the truth, they are "lying" ( that's not precisely the right word but...)

Here's something that is very misunderstood.

Liberals don't believe that conservatives see it, and say they don't.
Liberals believe conservatives actually DON'T see it. That they're not lying at all.

And that is why there is DEI. To force others to see things. And to become more aware of their unconscious choices and to see things that they don't see in their neighborhood


By extension, overt, codified discrimination was considered a form of non-discrimination if it was aimed at correcting such a discrepancy.

I think this is where the issue is here, the continued objections.

The purpose of codified discrimination is not to be non-discriminating. That's pointing out the obvious.

Sincere ignorance of that is what is, and this is only my thoughts, conscientious stupidity, refusal to understand that? Is why this shit is taking so long.
In my MLK thread riots and issues were compared. There is no reason that the George Floyd riots should have happened. Because there's no reason Chauvin should have done what he did and that wouldn't have happened if we were further along and it was normalized to see one another normally, but since people won't do that by choice it has to be forced so they get accustomed to seeing different types of people in different types of roles and it's absolutely normal.

ICodified discrimination is not trying to conceal itself in the cloak of non-discrimination!
When that basic principle is misunderstood and normally it's purposely, there will never be an end to this.

But the Civil Rights Act has nothing in its text that supports that kind of "corrective" discrimination, it simply forbids discrimination.

It's a Civil Rights Act was necessary to enforce the 14th Amendment.
And there has been amendments and executive orders and additional laws enacted because, because, people don't do the right thing on their own and that is why this saga continues on.

When you use the phrase , corrective discrimination , you're not using a legal term. The legal term for that is " legal remedy" and that's what we're talking about right now, legalities. We have to agree on the same language

" A legal remedy, also referred to as judicial relief or a judicial remedy, is the means with which a court of law, usually in the exercise of civil law jurisdiction, enforces a right, imposes a penalty, or makes another court order to impose its will in order to compensate for the harm of a wrongful act inflicted "

Legal remedies have been a part of jurisprudence for a long time.
It is when people refuse to follow the law or honor contracts.

And you know what, nobody wants to have to use legal remedies or as you call it corrective discrimination. That's the fallacy and that was discussed in that flour thread.

In that thread we discussed that people of color do not prefer a head start they would rather earn things fairly. Everybody agreed to that in that thread.
But the overwhelming and deeply suspicious sentiment is that people of color or minorities prefer and want to compete on an uneven playing field that they want advantages..

The exact same people that said they don't on that thread have turned around and said the exact opposite, that they do want advantages

And there doesn't seem to be any cognizance of this dissonance.


Gawd dang you @DaveL you owe me a garbage to the curb run!


I'm not going to apologize for this being long because you presented statements that can only be countered with very detailed rebuttals. We're talking about federal law state law accounting precedence amendments executive orders intent perceptions varying laws. This is not a simple thing otherwise there wouldn't be a lawsuit.
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"The state-funded Science and Technology Entry Program (STEP)"

Duh. I would really save myself a lot of time if I looked at things.

It's state- funded it's not mandated to follow the Civil Rights Act.
 
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It's state- funded it's not mandated to follow the Civil Rights Act.

Racial discrimination in public education, including higher education, is unlawful under Title IV regardless of whether the program receives federal funding or not.

It's a program that's been in action for 40 years and that this is the first time someone has noticed it violates a significant portion of the CRA? Unlikely.

On the contrary, this sort of thing happens all the time. Would you argue that bans on gay marriage couldn't possibly run afoul of the 14th Amendment, since the two coexisted for so long?

In this case, the catalyst was the Supreme Court case STUDENTS FOR FAIR ADMISSIONS, INC. v. PRESIDENT AND FELLOWS OF HARVARD COLLEGE, which found that Harvard's use of "corrective" racial discrimination against Asians was unlawful.

But I know what you're saying. And what you say is contracdory or at worst, not very nice.

It's not in the least bit contradictory, and nowhere do you come close to showing that it is.

The cause of any of those variables failing to thrive, as a population ( I want to make sure that we're in agreement that we are not referring to the individual, only a population group.

No, we're most definitely talking about individuals. Because the individual level is the only level where laws make sense. The 14th Amendment guarantees each person equal protection of the laws. Individuals are the only ones admitted to institutions of higher learning. Individuals are the only ones hired or fired. Individuals are the only ones arrested and incarcerated. As such, we cannot let one guilty person go free and incarcerate one innocent person on the basis that they share membership in some group, and therefore it all evens out.

Your contention is that when the measurements of a populations "success" is significantly than another groups, we cannot blame it on the fact that Consuela gets called back for an interview 50% less often thatn Judy, an objectively testable premise, or Black drivers get pulled over on their way to work 15% more than white drivers,

I get that you're trying to make the case that covert discrimination exists. And I agree with you. But first, it does not follow from that that any group difference you may find must therefore be ascribed to prejudice. Nor is there any need to prove any other particular cause before we reject that conclusion - in your own example, you mention the disappearance of a discrepancy in police searches after the sun goes down. That shows that we can identify what discrepancies are due to discrimination by blinding the process and seeing if the discrepancy disappears. No attempt is being made here to blind the process. They simply set a higher bar for Asian and White students than for Black, Hispanic, or Native students.

Second, if covert discrimination exists in, say, police stops or in resume call-backs, those instances of discrimination should be eliminated, not substituted for intentional discrimination somewhere else, that some functionary imagines to be equal but opposite. Keeping Asian kids out of advanced math classes in New York won't take the racist cop off the beat in Chicago.

Then it can equally be said with the same amount of conviction that conservatives hold it as an article of faith that it is not.

As I've already pointed out, there's no need to take on faith that something is not due to discrimination. First, it is possible simply not to know. Second, the discrimination hypothesis is testable by blinding the selection process to the attribute in question.

And that is why there is DEI. To force others to see things. And to become more aware of their unconscious choices and to see things that they don't see in their neighborhood

But that isn't at all what's going on here. What's actually going on is that children of some favored races can join a certain advanced STEM program without a financial means test, while children of non-favored races must show financial disadvantage.

In my MLK thread riots and issues were compared. There is no reason that the George Floyd riots should have happened. Because there's no reason Chauvin should have done what he did and that wouldn't have happened if we were further along

It has never been demonstrated that there was any racial animus in the George Floyd case. You probably find the very question absurd. But that's because it's a tenet of your faith, not because of any particular fact. Would police kneel on a white arrestee's neck until he asphyxiates? They did. In California, two months before George Floyd was killed.

[When you use the phrase , corrective discrimination , you're not using a legal term. The legal term for that is " legal remedy"

No, corrective discrimination is not a legal remedy. It was not ordered by a court, and it is unlawful. See the SCOTUS case referenced earlier.
 
My guess is they're addressing financial inequities by offering these programs cost-free and someone is put out because they have to pay for it?
 
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